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From: Kevin Turner <kevin.turner@xxxxxxxxx>
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Date: Wed, 5 Nov 2008 15:03:28 -0800
> Foucault refers to the classical experience of madness, but Foucault
> explicitly denies that "sexuality" as such was intelligible to ancient
> Greeks and even ancient Romans: "One would have a difficult time
> finding among the Greeks (or the Romans either for that matter)
> anything resembling the notion of 'sexuality' or 'flesh'" (The Use of
> Pleasure, p. 35).
not intelligible to Greeks or Romans, intelligible to Foucault.
> If you put it that way, you just end up transferring the idea of
> transhistorical existence from "subject" and "experience" to "madness"
> and "sexuality."
no, because madness does not exist, nor does sexuality for that matter (cf. SPT: 118, 131n10).