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From: "John Patrick" <panoptician@xxxxxxxxxxx>
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Date: Thu, 26 Sep 2002 10:34:34 -0400
If Foucault argues for the end of Subjectivity (the death of Man) and that
resistance to the dominant discourse or regime of truth does not exist,
where does that leave Foucault?
Is Foucault a Subject? Is his work a successful challenge to the dominant
discourse of the age?
I think the answer to both questions is yes, which pardoxically undermines
his arguments.
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