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From: Darren <darren.smith@xxxxxxxxxxx>
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Date: Wed, 29 Jul 1998 14:23:50 +1000
Foucault would argue that language and specialised languages position
people in various ways. It is a site of power. So, 'intellectual' texts are
a site of power which, through their specialised language, discipline the
reader in a particular position.
How would Foucault respond to the suggestion that his own writing ... which
is specialised ... does the same thing?
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