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From: daniel makagon <hbspc078@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
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Date: Mon, 24 Mar 1997 00:08:01 -0800 (PST)
I think the question is whether or not you are discussing Spivak's use of
the term "epistemic violence" or Foucault's use of the term. If memeory
serves me correct Spivak accused F. and Deleuze (_Can the Subaltern
Speak_) of committing epistemic violence because they were projecting a white
European epistemology onto the rest of the world (esp. third world). If
that's the case then we may be barking upthe wrong tree trying to find
quotes in F.'s writings. I don't know if that helps or opens an entirely
different can of worms. Take care.
Daniel