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From: ccw94@xxxxxxxxxx (Colin Wight)
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Date: Thu, 06 Feb 1997 10:02:29 +0000
Hi, I don't understand the following:
>i don't think i'd say power can be positive for foucault. power just is. its
>effects can be positive or negative when viewed subjectively, but power
>itself is neutral ( in theory anyway).
This implies that power simply has an existence independent of its modes of
articulation (persons). Is this really what F meant? This seems to imply a
very harsh fact/value divide. A genuine question actually, no hidden agenda.
I'm just trying to think through M. F's metaphysics.
Thanks,
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Colin Wight
Department of International Politics
University of Wales, Aberystwyth
Aberystwyth
SY23 3DA
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