+
From: sbinkley@xxxxxxxxxxxx
+
Date: Mon, 21 Oct 1996 15:38:14 GMT
On Mon, Oct 21, 1996 8:48:22 AM, Flannon wrote:
>Or, to offer another tack, if Foucault is a Kantian then so too is
>Nietzsche. The question then is not 'How does Foucault advance the
>Kantian project', but 'what elements of discourse which were deployed in
>Kant can be found still functioning in Nietzsche and Foucualt?'
HOw 'bout this: Foucault takes up Kant's critical project while dispensing
with the foundational stuff upon which Kant (and the kantians) based that
critique. Kant would not say Foucault was a Kantian: he would not believe
it possible to be critical without metaphysical foundations. The same
applies to Nietzsche.
As for the post modern question: the more we labour over the correct use of
this term the more we lend legitimacy ( and mystification) to its specific,
content. A mistake. Its use is more general. How can Fouault be called a
post modernist when he never even got as far as the 20th century?
sb