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From: atefeh oliai <atefeho@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
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Date: Fri, 15 Mar 1996 12:06:08 -0600
Hi all
may be this question of mine will be dealt with while we're doing La
Meninas, but i was wondering what was the source of 18th century
philosopher's interest in "representation" ? I am more interested in
political reasons. Why Kant insist so much on the publicity and spectacle?
how this is related to french 17 th century "theatre" which was used as a
mean of control? Or is there at all any relation?
I appreciate your thoughts on this.
Atefeh